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[2017 Latest Cisco 400-101 Dumps Version From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWczJDVzl1SUJLWms
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2017 Cisco 400-101 Dumps (All 828 Q&As) from Pass4itsure:
QUESTION 86
Which two statements about BIDIR-PIM are true? (Choose two)
A. It uses implicit join messages to signal membership.
B. It is designed to support one-to-many applications within a PIM domain.
C. It uses (*,G) multicast routing entries to make forwarding decisions.
D. It uses a designated forwarder to maintain a loop-free SPT.
E. Traffic can be passed downstream from the shared tree toward the RP.
400-101 exam Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 87
Which mechanism does get vpn use to preserve ip header information?
A. GRE
B. MPLS
C. IPsec transport mode
D. IPsec tunnel mode
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 88
What are two mechanisms that directed ARP uses to help resolve IP addresses to hardware addresses? (Choose two)
A. It removes address-resolution restrictions, allowing dynamic protocols to advertise rou information for the device loopback address.
B. It uses ICMP redirects to advertise next-hop addresses to foreign hosts
C. It uses series of ICMP echo messages to relay next-hop addresses.
D. It removes address-resolution restrictions, allowing dynamic protocols to advertise routing information for the next-hop address.
E. t uses a proxy mechanism to allow a device to respond to ARP requests for the addresses of other devices
400-101 dumps Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 89
What are two of the commands that you can enter to gracefully shut down OSPF and notify neighbors? (Choose two)
A. router(config-if)# ip ospf graceful shutdown
B. router(config-if)# ip ospf shutdown
C. router(config-router)# shutdown
D. router(config-router)# graceful shutdown
E. router(config)# ip notify
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
QUESTION 90
Which two services are used to transport Layer 2 frames across a packet-switched network? (Choose two.)
A. Frame Relay
B. ATM
C. AToM
D. L2TPv3
Correct Answer: CD
400-101 pdf Explanation
QUESTION 91
Which condition must be satisfied before a Cisco router running RIP can poison a route ?
A. The invalid timer must expire.
B. The hold down timer must expire.
C. The flush timer must expire.
D. The flush timer must reach 240 seconds.
E. The metric must equal! 6.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 92
Which two statements about private VLAN communications are true? (Choose two)
A. Primary VLAN traffic is passed across trunk interfaces.
B. Isolated ports communicate with other isolated ports.
C. Promiscuous ports communicate with all other ports.
D. Promiscuous ports connect only to routers.
400-101 vce Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
QUESTION 93
Which command can you enter on an interface so that the interface will notify the sender of a packet that the path is sub-optimal?
A. Ipnhrp cost 65535
B. Ipnhrp redirect
C. Ipnhrp set-unique-bit
D. Ipnhrp record
E. Ipnhrp shortcut
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 94
Which two statements about IS-IS authentication are true ?(Choose two.)
A. Level 2 LSPs transmit the password encrypted inside the IS-IS PDU.
B. Area and domain authentication must be configured together.
C. Passwords can be configured on a per-interface basis.
D. If LSP authentication is in use , unauthorized devices can form neighbor adjacencies.
E. Lever 1 LSPs use the domain password.
400-101 exam Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
QUESTION 95
Which option is the origin code when a route is redistributed into BGP?
A. IGP
B. EGP
C. External
D. Incomplete
E. Unknown
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 96
Which two statements about route summarization are true?(Choose two.)
A. EIGRP can summarize routes at the classful network boundary
B. EIGRP and RIPv2 route summarize are configured with the ip summary-address command under the route..
C. It can be disabled in RIP,RIPv2 and EIGRP
D. It require a common set of high-order bits for all component routes
E. RIPv2 can summarize-routes beyond the classful network boundary
400-101 dumps Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
QUESTION 97
Which value does VPLS use to make forwarding decision?
A. Destination MAC of the the Ethernet
B. Destination IP address of the packet
C. Source MAC of the Ethernet frame
D. Source IP address of the packet
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 98
What is the default console authentication method on the Cisco routers ?
A. Local
B. EAPol
C. open
D. TACACS+
E. no authentication
F. RADIUS
400-101 pdf Correct Answer: E
Explanation
QUESTION 99
Refer to the exhibit. This network is undergoing a migration from PVST+ to MST. S1 is the MSTO root
bridge and S2 is the MSTO secondary root. Which statement about traffic from S3 is true ?
A. Interface GiO/0 is blocked on S3 for VLAN40 and VLAN50 unless it is configured for load balancing with PVST+.
B. Interface GiO/0 is blocked on S3 for VLAN40 and VLAN50 and load balancing fails until S3 is migrated to MST.
C. Interface GiO/1 is blocked on S3 for VLAN40 and VLAN50 and load balancing fails until S3 is migrated to MST.
D. Vlan traffic automatically load balances between GO/0 and GO/1 on S3 using migrated to MST
E. PVST+ inherits the load-balancing configuration from MST.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 100
Refer to the exhibit.
R1 and R2 advertise 10.50.1.0/24 to R3 and R4 as shown.R1 is the primary path. Which path does traffic
take from the data center to the file server?
A. All traffic travels from R4 to R2 to R1 to the file server.
B. Traffic is load-balanced from R4 to R2 and R3. Traffic that is directed to R3 then continues to R1 to the file server. Traffic that is directed to R2 continues to the file server.
C. All traffic travels from R4 to R2 to the files server.
D. All traffic travels from R4 to R3 to R1 to the file server.
400-101 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 101
Which command can you use to redistribute IBGP routes into the IGP?
A. no synchronization
B. redistribute protocol process-number
C. bgp redistribute-internal
D. synchronization
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION NO: 102
________make decisions themselves and issue orders to subordinates without seeking their input and without regard to their feelings where as __________ use a more democratic approach to leadership. Practitioners of participative management seek out and incorporate input from subordinates when making decisions.
A. consultative managers, directing managers
B. Autocratic managers, Participative managers
C. Participative managers, Autocratic managers
D. directing managers, consultative managers
400-101 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 103
Strategic planning in government is the process of making decisions about how to achieve an entity’s mandates and goals and determining the resources required to accomplish those goals. Where as Strategic plans should be updated on a regular basis and are long-term in nature:
A. Strategic plans, long-term Strategic, planning,
B. Strategic planning, Strategic plans, short-term
C. Strategic planning, Strategic plans, long-term
D. Strategic planning, Short-term, Strategic plans,
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 104
All of the following are major steps in the strategic planning process EXCEPT:
A. To develop the general outline.
B. Develop one or more general statements that address what the entity aims to achieve.
C. Develop specific plans, a method for achieving those plans, and resource allocations. The plans should contain measurable objectives and implementation or achievement time frames.
D. Communicate the plan to affected staff. Consider sharing early drafts of the plan with staff to obtain their input and to ensure their support of the plan.
400-101 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 105
The basic elements of effective decision-making are also used as standard guidelines for information technology project management practices. All of the following are the basic steps in decision-making EXCEPT:
A. Identify possible solutions that will address the problem. Consider how each possible solution will influence affected groups.
B. Define the problem.
C. Identify the interests and values of individuals and groups affected by the problem.
D. Monitor the plan and its effectiveness. Strategic plans are dynamic tools, not static documents. Management should constantly monitor the effect of changes in the entity’s external environment and modify the strategic initiatives as necessary.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 106
German sociologist Max Weber coined the term bureaucracy. All of the following are positive functions bureaucracies have EXCEPT:
A. A division of labor that allows each employee to have specific functions and duties.
B. A framework of rules that give employees direction about what they are supposed to do.
C. Appointments to office are based on technical qualifications, not political contacts.
D. Levels of authority that enables decisions to be made.
400-101 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 107
Change is a basic fact of life in all organizations. Managers must be able to respond to change in a quick and effective manner. All of the following are categories of change that government managers should consider EXCEPT:
A. Changes in the physical environment (e.g., increased population) can create an increased demand for services.
B. Changes in technology can result in a need to change policies, procedures, staffing levels, or goals.
C. Changes in the political environment (e.g., new administrations, new legislation) can result in a need to change or increase areas of emphasis.
D. No Changes in the moral environment (e.g., increased emphasis of ethics in government) can result in the need for tighter controls and performance measures.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 108
The COSO report suggests that organizations should plan to the extent possible for change. All of the following are Specific elements related to planning for change EXCEPT:
A. Look toward the future when developing missions and goals.
B. Not to maintain effective management controls.
C. Assess the effectiveness of programs on a continuous basis.
D. Develop strong communication channels within the organization.
400-101 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 109
Groups may be informal (e.g., peer groups) or formal (e.g., work groups defined by management). Members of the group can have either assigned or adopted roles. Groups also develop a set of norms, or accepted standards of behavior, which group members are expected to follow.
A. informal, formal, organization members
B. informal, formal, community members
C. formal, informal, group members
D. informal, formal, group members
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 110
All of the following are the goals of a well-functioning group EXCEPT:
A. Time should be spent solving major problems instead of petty personal conflicts and concerns.
B. The group should recognize that individuals have different strengths and weaknesses. Roles and assignments of group members should take these strengths and weaknesses into account.
C. Achieving the overall goals of the group should not be the priority of all group members.
D. The group should make decisions based on sound logic and evidence. Input from all group members, regardless of rank or experience level, should be heard and evaluated fairly.
400-101 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 111
All of the following are objectives of a centralized function EXCEPT:
A. Establishing reporting requirements to ensure that common budget and financial reports have similar characteristics and can be used for comparative analysis.
B. Reducing the need for the development of guidelines for each individual agency.
C. Summarizing reports to collect, analyze, and provide summary reports to the oversight body.
D. Not reducing the need for the development of guidelines for each individual agency.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 112
A _______creates an additional layer of bureaucracy and potentially creates a new base of political power that can impede progress. Where as ________can become extremely powerful as they can impact the speed and delivery of government services with requirements and enforcement actions:
A. centralized function, Centralized agencies
B. decentralized function, Centralized agencies
C. centralized function, decentralized agencies
D. decentralized function, decentralized agencies
400-101 dumps Answer: A
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