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2018 Cisco 200-105 Dumps (All 204 Q&As) from Pass4itsure:
Question No : 16 – (Topic 1) Which protocol provides a method of sharing VLAN configuration information between two Cisco switches?
A. STP
B. VTP
C. 802.1Q
D. RSTP
200-105 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
Understanding VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP)
Introduction
VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP) reduces administration in a switched network. When you configure a new VLAN on one VTP server, the VLAN is distributed through all switches in the domain. This reduces the need to configure the same VLAN everywhere. VTP is a Cisco-proprietary protocol that is available on most of the Cisco Catalyst series products.
Question No : 17 – (Topic 1) Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)
A. A new switch has no VLANs configured.
B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device.
C. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains.
D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space.
E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.
F. VLANs cannot span multiple switches.
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:
By default, all ports on a new switch belong to VLAN 1 (default & native VLAN). There are also some well-known VLANs (for example: VLAN 1002 for fddi-default; VLAN 1003 for token-ring…) configured by default -> A is not correct. To communicate between two different VLANs we need to use a Layer 3 device like router or Layer 3 switch -> B is correct.
VLANs don’t affect the number of collision domains, they are the same -> C is not correct. Typically, VLANs increase the number of broadcast domains.We must use a different network (or sub-network) for each VLAN. For example we can use 192.168.1.0/24 for VLAN 1, 192.168.2.0/24 for VLAN 2 -> D is correct. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN so that it can send frame to ports on the same VLAN only. For example, if a PC in VLAN 2 sends a frame then the
switch look-ups its bridging table and only sends frame out of its ports which belong to VLAN 2 (it also sends this frame on trunk ports) -> E is correct. We can use multiple switches to expand VLAN -> F is not correct.
Question No : 18 – (Topic 1) Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)
A. discarding
B. listening
C. learning
D. forwarding
E. disabled
200-105 dumps Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Understanding Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (802.1w)
Port States
There are only three port states left in RSTP that correspond to the three possible operational states. The 802.1D disabled, blocking, and listening states are merged into a unique 802.1w discarding state. RSTP only has 3 port states which are discarding, learning and forwarding. When RSTP has converged there are only 2 port states left: discarding and forwarding.
QUESTION 19
It has become necessary to configure an existing serial interface to accept a second Frame Relay virtual circuit. Which of the following are required to solve this? (Choose three)
A. configure static frame relay map entries for each subinterface network.
B. remove the ip address from the physical interface
C. create the virtual interfaces with the interface command
D. configure each subinterface with its own IP address
E. disable split horizon to prevent routing loops between the subinterface networks
F. encapsulate the physical interface with multipoint PPP
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 20
Which of these represents an IPv6 link-local address?
A. FE80::380e:611a:e14f:3d69
B. FE81::280f:512b:e14f:3d69
C. FEFE:0345:5f1b::e14d:3d69
D. FE08::280e:611:a:f14f:3d69
200-105 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21 What are the benefit of using Netflow? (Choose three.)
A. Network, Application & User Monitoring
B. Network Planning
C. Security Analysis
D. Accounting/Billing
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 22 Which statement is FALSE regarding use of admission control in a QoS BSS?
A. The IEEE 802.11 QoS facility implements a single admission control mechanism for use in contention-free periods (CFPs) and contention periods (CPs).
B. The ACM bit is static for the duration of the lifetime of a BSS.
C. If a QoS STA desires to send data without admission control using an access category (AC) that mandates admission control, the QoS STA will use a lower priority AC that does not use admission control.
D. A QoS AP uses ACM subfields in the EDCA Parameter Set element to indicate admission control requirements for each access category (AC).
E. A hybrid coordinator may enforce admission control policies during both contention-free periods (CFPs) and contention periods (CPs).
200-105 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 23 Given the IEEE 802.11 Beacon frame decode shown, determine which statement is true.
A. The access point is operating on channel 3.
B. The access point has both 1 Mbps and 2 Mbps configured as basic rates.
C. This Beacon frame came from an ERP access point.
D. The duration value of 0 ec means that this access point is operating in HEMM mode.
E. ERP mobile stations must use the RTS/CTS protocol before Data transmissions.
Answer: C
QUESTION 24 In an ERP QoS BSS using APSD, when is the Power Management subfield of the Frame Control field set to a value of 1?
A. Only in management frames sent by a non-AP QoS STA immediately prior to entering a low power state (dozing).
B. On any QoS Data frame sent by the QoS AP subsequent to a PS-Poll frame.
C. On any frame transmitted by a non-AP QoS STA using APSD.
D. Only in the PS-Poll frame sent from a STA operating in PS mode.
200-105 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 25 The IEEE 802.11 (as amended) Dynamic Frequency Selection (DFS) service is capable of performing what functions?
A. Establishing a interference baseline on all 2.4 GHz channels
B. Using modulation switching techniques to avoid interfering with radar systems
C. Testing channels for radar before using a channel and while operating in a channel
D. Suspending operations on a channel with high IEEE 802.11 co-channel interference
E. Requesting and reporting of measurements in the current and other channels
Answer: CE
QUESTION 26
A new server has been placed on the network. You have been assigned to protect this server using a packet-filtering firewall. To comply with this request, you have enabled the following ruleset: Which choice describes the next step to take now that this ruleset has been enabled?
A. From the internal network, use your Web browser to determine whether all internal users can access the Web server.
B. From the internal network, use your e-mail client to determine whether all internal users can access the e-mail server.
C. From the external network, use your Web browser to determine whether all external users can access the Web server.
D. From the external network, use your e-mail client to determine whether all external users can access the e-mail server.
200-105 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27 Certkiller .com has two headquarters, one in London, one in new York. Each headquarters includes several branch offices. The branch offices only need to communicate with the headquarters in their country, not with each other, and only the headquarters need to communicate directly. What is the BEST configuration for VPN Communities among the branch offices and their headquarters, and between the two headquarters? VPN Communities comprised of:
A. Two star and one mesh Community; each star Community is set up for each site, with headquarters as the center of the Community, and branches as satellites. The mesh Communities are between the New York and London headquarters
B. Three mesh Communities: one for London headquarters and its branches, one for New York headquarters and its branches, and one for London and New York headquarters
C. Two mesh Communities, one for each headquarters and their branch offices; and one star Community, in which London is the center of the Community and New York is the satellite
D. Two mesh Communities, one for each headquarters and their branch offices; and one star Community, where New York is the center of the Community and London is the satellite
Answer: A
QUESTION 28 When you change an implicit rule’s order from “last” to “first” in Global Properties, how do you make the change effective?
A. Close SmartDashboard, and reopen it
B. Select install database from the Policy menu
C. Select save from the file menu
D. Reinstall the Security Policy
E. Run fw fetch from the Security Gateway
200-105 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION 29 Which command allows you to view the contents of an NGX table?
A. fw tab -s <tablename>-
B. fw tab -t <tablename>-
C. fw tab -u <tablename>-
D. fw tab -a <tablename>-
E. fw tab -x <tablename>-
Answer: B
QUESTION 30 Jack’s project is to define the backup and restore section of his organization’s disaster recovery plan for his organization’s distributed NGX instaliation. Jack must meet the following required and desired objectives .
* Required Objective The security policy repository must be backed up no less frequent~ than every 24 hours
* Desired Objective The NGX components that enforce the Security Policies should be backed up no less frequently than once a week
* Desired Objective Back up NGX logs no less frequently than once a week Jack’s disaster recovery plan is as follows. See exhibit. Jack’s plan:
A. Meets the required objective but does not meet either desired objective
B. Does not meet the required objective
C. Meets the required objective and only one desired objective
D. Meets the required objective and both desired objectives
200-105 vce Answer: D
Explanation: Logs can be viewed after exported.
QUESTION 31 You want to upgrade a cluster with two members to VPN-1 NGK The SmartCenter Server and both members are version VPN-1/FireWall-1 NG FP3, with the latest Hotfix. What is the correct upgrade procedure?
1. Change the version, in the General Properties of the gateway-cluster object
2. Upgrade the SmartCenter Server, and reboot after upgrade
3. Run cpstop on one member, while leaving the other member running. Upgrade one member at a time, and reboot after upgrade
4. Reinstall the Security Policy
A. 3,2,1,4
B. 2,4,3,1
C. 1,3,2,4
D. 2,3,1,4
E. 1,2,3,4
Answer: D
QUESTION 32 Certkiller needs to back up the routing, interface, and DNS configuration information from her NGX SecurePlatform Pro Security Gateway. Which backup-and-restore solution do you recommend for Certkiller?
A. Database Revision Control
B. Manual copies of the $FWDIR/conf directory
C. upgrade_export and upgrade_import commands
D. SecurePlatformbackup utilities
E. Policy Package management
200-105 exam Answer: D
QUESTION 33 The following is cphaprobstate command output from a New Mode High Availability cluster member: Which machine has the highest priority?
A. 192.168.1.2,since its number is 2
B. 192.168.1.1,because its number is 1
C. This output does not indicate which machine has the highest priority
D. 192.168.1.2, because its state is active
Answer: B
QUESTION 34 What do you use to view an NGX Security Gateway’s status, including CPU use, amount of virtual memory, percent of free hard-disk space, and version?
A. SmartLSM
B. SmartViewTracker
C. SmartUpdate
D. SmartViewMonitor
E. SmartViewStatus
200-105 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION 35 Which of the following commands is used to restore NGX configuration information?
A. cpcontig
B. cpinfo-i
C. restore
D. fwm dbimport
E. upgrade_import
Answer: E
QUESTION 36 Eric wants to see all URLs’ ful destination path in the SmartView Tracker logs, not just the fully qualified domain name of the web servers. For Example, the information field of a log entry displays the URL How can Eric best customize SmartView Tracker to see the logs he wants? Configure the URl resource, and select
A. “transparent” asthe connection method
B. “tunneling”as the connection method
C. “optimize URL logging”; use the URI resource in the rule, with action “accept”
D. “Enforce URI capability”; use the URI resource in the rule,with action “accept”
200-105 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION 37 Which of the following commands shows full synchronizalion status?
A. cphaprob -i list
B. cphastop
C. fw ctl pstat
D. cphaprob -a if
E. fw hastat
Answer: C
QUESTION 38 By default, when you click File >- Switch Active File from SmartView Tracker, the SmartCenter Server
A. Opens a new window with a previously saved log file
B. Purges the current log file, and starts a new log file
C. Purges the current log, and prompts you for the new log’s mode
D. Saves the current log file, names the log file by date and time, and starts a new log file
E. Prompts you to enter a filename, then saves the log file
200-105 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 39 The following is cphaprob state command output from a ClusterXL New mode High Availability member When member 192.168.1.2 fails over and restarts, which member will become actrve?
A. 192.168.1.2
B. 192.168.1.1
C. Both members’ state will be standby
D. Both members’ state will be active
Answer: B
QUESTION 40 Select the correct statement about Secure Internal Communications (SIC) Certificates? SIC Certificates:
A. for the SmartCenter Server are created during the SmartCenter Server configuration
B. decrease network security by securing administrative communication among the SmartCenter Servers and the Security Gateway
C. for NGX Security Gateways are created during the SmartCenter Server installation
D. uniquely identify Check Point enabled machines; they have the same function as VPN Certificates
E. are used for securing internal network communications between the SmartView Tracker and an OPSEC device
200-105 exam Answer: D
QUESTION 41 Which VPN Community object is used to configure VPN routing within the SmartDashboard?
A. Star
B. Mesh
C. Remote Access
D. Map
Answer: A
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